Time 35 minutes 25 Questions
Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages.
1. With the passage of the new tax reform law, the annual tax burden on low-income taxpayers will be reduced, on average, by anywhere from $100 to $300. Clearly, tax reform is in the interest of low-income taxpayers.
Which one of the following, if true, most undermines the conclusion above?
(A) Tax reform, by simplifying the tax code, will save many people the expense of having an accountant do their taxes.
(B) Tax reform, by eliminating tax incentives to build rental housing, will push up rents an average of about $40 per month for low-income taxpayers.
(C) Low-income taxpayers have consistently voted for those political candidates who are strong advocates of tax reform.
(D) The new tax reform laws will permit low and middle-income taxpayers to deduct child-care expenses from their taxes.（B）
(E) Under the new tax reform laws, many low-income taxpayers who now pay taxes will no longer be required to do so.
2. If we are to expand the exploration of our solar system, our next manned flight should be to Phobos, one of Mars’s moons, rather than to Mars itself. The flight times to each are the same, but the Phobos expedition would require less than half the fuel load of a Mars expedition and would, therefore, be much less costly. So, it is clear that Phobos should be our next step in Space exploration.
Which one of the following, if true, would most help to explain the difference in fuel requirement?
(A) More equipment would be required to explore Phobos than to explore Mars.
(B) Smaller spaceships require less fuel than larger spaceships.
(C) Information learned during the trip to Phobos can be used during a subsequent trip to Mars.
(D) The shortest distance between Phobos and Mars is less than half the shortest distance Between Earth and Mars.（E）
(E) Lift-off for the return trip from Phobos requires much less fuel than that from Mars because of Phobos weaker gravitational pull.
3. Scientific research that involves international collaboration has produced papers of greater influence. As measured by the number of times a paper is cited in subsequent papers, than has research without any collaboration. Papers that result from international collaboration are cited an average of seven times, whereas papers with single authors are cited only three times on average. This difference shows that research projects conducted by international research teams are of greater importance than those conducted by single researchers.
Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(A) Prolific writers can inflate the number of citations they receive by citing themselves in subsequent papers.
(B) It is possible to ascertain whether or not a paper is the product of international collaboration by determining the number of citations it has received.
(C) The number of citations a paper receives is a measure of the importance of the research it reports.
(D) The collaborative efforts of scientists who are citizens of the same country do not produce papers that are as important as papers that are produced by international collaboration.（C）
(E) International research teams tend to be more generously funded than are single researchers.
4. It is more desirable to have some form of socialized medicine than a system of medical care relying on the private sector. Socialized medicine is more broadly accessible than is private-sector system. In addition, since countries with socialized medicine have a lower infant morality rate than do countries with a system relying entirely on the private sector, socialized medicine seems to be technologically superior.
Which one of the following best indicates a flaw in the argument about the technological superiority of socialized medicine?
(A) The lower infant mortality rate might be due to the systems allowing greater access to medical care.
(B) There is no necessary connection between the economic system of socialism and technological achievement.
(C) Infant mortality is a reliable indicator of the quality of medical care for children.
(D) No list is presented of the countries whose infant mortality statistics are summarized under the two categories, “socialized” and “private-sector.”（A）
(E) The argument presupposes the desirability of socialized medicine, which is what the argument seeks to establish.
5. Most parents who are generous are good parents, but some self-centered parents are also good parents. Yet all good parents share one characteristic: they are good listeners.
If all of the statements in the passage are true, which one of the following must also be true?
(A) All parents who are good listeners are good parents.
(B) Some parents who are good listeners are not good parent.
(C) Most parents who are good listeners are generous.
(D) Some parents who are good listeners are self-centered.（D）
(E) Fewer self-centered parents than generous parents are good listeners.
6. Lourdes: Dietary fiber is an important part of a healthful diet. Experts recommend that adults consume 20 to 35 grams of fiber a day.
Kyra: But a daily intake of fiber that is significantly above that recommended level interferes with mineral absorption, especially the absorption of calcium. The public should be told to cut back on fiber intake
Which one of the following, if true, most undermines Kyra’s recommendation?
(A) Among adults, the average consumption of dietary fiber is at present approximately 10 grams a day.
(B) The more a food is processed, the more the fiber is broken down and the lower the fiber content.
(C) Many foodstuffs that are excellent sources of fiber are economical and readily available.
(D) Adequate calcium intake helps prevent the decrease in bone mass known as osteoporosis.（A）
(E) Many foodstuffs that are excellent sources of fiber are popular with consumers.
7. A certain retailer promotes merchandise by using the following policy:
At all times there is either a “manager’s sale” or a “holiday sale” or both going on. All sales are run for exactly one calendar month. In any given month, if a manager wishes to clear out particular line of merchandise, then a managers’ sale is declared. If a holiday falls within the calendar month and there is excess merchandise in the warehouse, then a holiday sale is declared.
However, there is no holiday that falls within the month of August and, in that month, the warehouse never contains excess merchandise.
Which one of the following can be concluded from the passage?
(A) If a holiday falls within a given month and there is no extra merchandise in the warehouse that month, then a holiday sale is declared.
(B) If a holiday sale is not being run, then it is the month of August.
(C) If a manger’s sale is being run in some month, then there is no excess merchandise in the warehouse in that month.
(D) If there is not a manger’s sale being run some month, then there is holiday sale being run in that month.（D）
(E) If there is no excess merchandise in the warehouse, then it is the month of August.
8. Prominent business executives often play active roles in United States presidential campaigns as fundraisers or backroom strategists. But few actually seek to become president themselves. Throughout history the great majority of those who have sought to become president have been Lawyers, military leaders, or full-time politicians. This is understandable, for the personality and skills that make for success in business do not make for success in politics. Business is largely hierarchical, whereas politics is coordinative. As a result, business executives tend to be uncomfortable with compromises and power sharing, which are inherent in polities.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the proposed explanation of why business executives do not run for president?
(A) Many of the most active presidential fundraisers and backroom strategists are themselves politicians.
(B) Military leaders are generally no more comfortable with compromises and power sharing than are business executives.
(C) Some of the skills needed to become a successful lawyer are different from some of those needed to become a successful military leader.
(D) Some former presidents have engaged in business ventures after leaving office.（B）
(E) Some hierarchically structured companies have been major financial supporters of candidates for president.
9. A scientific theory is a good theory if it satisfies two requirements: It must accurately describe a large class of observations in terms of a model that is simple enough to contain only a few elements, and it must make definite predictions about the results of future observations. For example, Aristotle’s cosmological theory, which claimed that everything was made out of four elements—earth, air, fire, and water—satisfied the first requirement, but it did not make any definite prediction. Thus, Aristotle’s cosmological theory was not a good theory.
If all the statements in the passage are true, each of the following must also be true EXCEPT:
(A) Prediction about the results of future observations must be made by any good scientific theory.
(B) Observation of physical phenomena was not a major concern in Aristotle’s cosmological theory.
(C) Four elements can be the basis of a scientific model that is simple enough to meet the simplicity criterion of a good theory.
(D) A scientific model that contains many elements is not a good theory.（B）
(E) Aristotle’s cosmological theory described a large class of observations in terms of only four elements.
10. Millions of irreplaceable exhibits in natural history museums are currently allowed to decay. Yet without analyses of eggs from museums, the studies linking pesticides with the decline of birds of prey would have been impossible. Therefore, funds must be raised to preserve at least those exhibits that will be most valuable to science in the future.
The argument presupposes that
(A) if a museum exhibit is irreplaceable, its preservation is of an importance that overrides economic considerations
(B) the scientific analysis of museum exhibits can be performed in nondestructive way
(C) eggs of extinct species should be analyzed to increase knowledge of genetic relationships among species
(D) it can be known at this time what data will be of most use to scientific investigators in the future（D）
(E) the decay of organic material in natural history exhibits is natural and cannot be prevented
11. Compared to nonprofit hospitals of the same size, investor-owned hospitals require less public investment in the form of tax breaks, use fewer employees, and have higher occupancy levels. It can therefore be concluded that investor-owned hospitals are a better way of delivering medical care than are nonprofit hospitals.
Which one of the following, if true, most undermines the conclusion drawn above?
(A) Nonprofit hospitals charge more per bed than do investor-owned hospitals.
(B) Patients in nonprofit hospitals recover more quickly than don patients with comparable illnesses in investor-owned hospitals.
(C) Nonprofit hospitals do more fundraising than do investor-owned hospitals.
(D) Doctors at nonprofit hospitals earn higher salaries than do similarly qualified doctors at investor-owned hospitals.（B）
(E) Nonprofit hospitals receive more donations than do investor-owned hospitals.
12. The ancient Egyptian pharaoh Akhenaten, who had a profound effect during his lifetime on Egyptian art and religion, was well loved and highly respected by his subjects. We know this from the fierce loyalty show to him by his palace guards, as documented in reports written during Akhenaten’s reign.
A questionable technique used in the argument is to
(A) introduce information that actually contradicts the conclusion
(B) rely on evidence that in principle would be impossible to challenge
(C) make a generalization based on a sample that is likely to be unrepresentative
(D) depend on the ambiguity of the term “ancient”（C）
(E) apply present-day standards in an inappropriate way to ancient times
13. Physician: The patient is suffering either from disease X or else from disease Y, but there is no available test for distinguishing X from Y. Therefore, since there is an effective treatment for Y but no treatment for X, we must act on the assumption that the patient has a case of Y.
The physician’s reasoning could be based on which one of the following principles?
(A) In treating a patient who has one or the other of two diseases, it is more important to treat the diseases than to determine which of the two diseases the patient has.
(B) If circumstances beyond a decision maker’s control will affect the outcome of the decision maker’s actions, the decision maker must assume that circumstances are unfavorable.
(C) When the soundness of a strategy depends on the truth of a certain assumption, the first step in putting the strategy into effect must be to test the truth of this assumption.
(D) When success is possible only if a circumstance beyond one’s control is favorable, then one’s strategy must be based on the assumption that this circumstance is in fact favorable.（D）
(E) When only one strategy carries the possibility of success, circumstances must as much as possible be changed to fit this strategy.
14. Consumer advocate: Tropical oils are high in saturated fats, which increase the risk of heart disease. Fortunately, in most prepared food tropical oils can be replaced by healthier alternatives without noticeably affecting taste. Therefore, intensive publicity about the disadvantage of tropical oils will be likely to result in dietary changes that will diminish many people’s risk of developing heart disease.
Nutritionist: The major sources of saturated fat in the average North American diet are meat, poultry, and dairy products, not tropical oils. Thus, focusing attention on the health hazards of tropical oils would be counterproductive, because it would encourage people to believe that more substantial dietary changes are unnecessary.
Which one of the following is a point at issue between the nutritionist and the consumer advocate?
(A) Whether a diet that regularly includes large quantities of tropical oil can increase the risk of heart disease.
(B) Whether intensive publicity campaigns can be effective as means of changing people’s eating habits.
(C) Whether more people in North American would benefit from reducing the amount of meat they consume than would benefit from eliminating tropical oils from their diets.
(D) Whether some people’s diets could be made significantly healthier if they replaced all tropical oils with vegetable oils that are significantly lower in saturated fat.（E）
(E) Whether conducting a publicity campaign that by focusing on the health hazards of tropical oils persuades people to replace such oils with healthier alternatives is a good public-health strategy.
15. People who take what others regard as a ridiculous position should not bother to say, “I mean every word!” For either their position truly is ridiculous, in which case insisting that they are serious about it only exposes them to deeper embarrassment, or else their position has merit, in which case they should meet disbelief with rational argument rather than with assurances of their sincerity.
Which one of the following arguments is most similar in its reasoning to the argument above?
(A) A practice that has been denounced as poor practice should not be defended on the grounds that “this is how we have always done it.” If the practice is a poor one, so much the worse that it has been extensively used; if it is not poor one, there must be a better reason for engaging in it than inertia.
(B) People who are asked why they eat some of the unusual foods they eat should not answer, “because that is what I like.” This sort of answer will sound either naive or evasive and thus will satisfy no one.
(C) People whose taste in clothes is being criticized should not replay, “Every penny I spent on these clothes I earned honestly.” For the issue raise by the critics is not how the money was come by but rather whether it was spent wisely.
(D) Scholars who champion unpopular new theories should not assume that the widespread rejection of their ideas shows that they “must be on the right track.” The truth is that few theories of any consequence are either wholly right or wholly wrong and thus there is no substitute for patient works in ascertaining which parts are right.（A）
(E) People who set themselves goals that others denounce as overly ambitious do little to silence their critics if they say, “I can accomplish this if anyone can.” Rather, those people should either admit that their critics are right or not dignify the criticism with any reply.
16. Concetta: Franchot was a great writer because she was ahead of her time in understanding that industrialization was taking an unconscionable toll on the family structure of the working class.
Alicia: Franchot was not a great writer. The mark of a great writer is the ability to move people with the power of the written word, not the ability to be among the first to grasp a social issue. Besides, the social consequences of industrialization were widely understood in Franchot’s day.
In her disagreement with Concetta, Alicia does which one of the following?
(A) accepts Concetta’s criterion and then adds evidence to Concetta’s case
(B) discredits Concetta’s evidence and then generalizes from new evidence
(C) rejects Concetta’s criterion and then disputes a specific claim
(D) disputes Concetta’s conclusion and then presents facts in support of an alternative criterion（C）
(E) attacks one of Concetta’s claims and then criticizes the structure of her argument
Zelda: Dr. Ladlow, a research psychologist, has convincingly demonstrated that his theory about the determinants of rat behavior generates consistently accurate predictions about how rats will perform in a maze. On the basis of this evidence, Dr. Ladlow has claimed that his theory is irrefutably correct.
Anson: Then Dr. Ladlow is not responsible psychologist. Dr. Ladlow’s evidence does not conclusively prove that his theory is correct. Responsible psychologists always accept the possibility that new evidence will show that their theories are incorrect.
17. Which one of the following can be properly inferred from Anson’s argument?
(A) Dr. Ladlow’s evidence that his theory generates consistently accurate predictions about how rates will perform in a maze is inaccurate.
(B) Psychologists who can derive consistently accurate predictions about how rats will perform in a maze from their theories cannot responsibly conclude that those theories cannot be disproved.
(C) No matter how responsible psychologists are, they can never develop correct theoretical explanations.
(D) Responsible psychologists do not make predictions about how rats will perform in a maze.（B）
(E) Psychologists who accept the possibility that new evidence will show that their theories are incorrect are responsible psychologists.
18. Anson bases his conclusion about Dr. Ladlow on which one of the following?
(A) an attack on Dr. Ladlow’s character
(B) the application of a general principle
(C) the use of an ambiguous term
(D) the discrediting of facts（B）
(E) the rejection of a theoretical explanation
19. Smith: Meat in the diet is healthy, despite what some people say. After all, most doctors do eat meat, and who knows more about health than doctors do?
Which one of the following is a flaw in Smith’s reasoning?
(A) attacking the opponents’ motives instead of their argument
(B) generalizing on the basis of a sample consisting of a typical cases
(C) assuming at the outset what the argument claims to establish through reasoning
(D) appealing to authority, even when different authorities give conflicting advice about an issue（E）
(E) taking for granted that experts do not act counter to what, according to their expertise, in their best interest
20. The rise in the prosperity of England subsequent to 1840 can be attributed to the adoption of the policy of free trade, since economic conditions improved only when that policy had been implemented.
The reasoning in the above argument most closely parallels that in which one of the following?
(A) An exhaustive search of the marshes last year revealed no sign of marsh hawks, so it can be assumed that a similar search this year would reveal equally little sign of that kind of bird.
(B) Building a circular bypass road around Plainfield probably helped the flow of local traffic in the town center, since a circular bypass road generally cuts a city’s through traffic markedly.
(C) Before the banks raised their interest rates, people on average incomes could almost afford a mortgage for an amount twice their salary. Hence the rate increase has now put mortgages beyond their reach.
(D) Since the improvement in the company’s profitability began to occur after the vice president’s new morale-building program was put in place, that program can be credited with the improved result.（D）
(E) The extinction of the dinosaurs was brought about by an asteroid colliding with Earth, so their extinction could not have come before the collision.
21. During construction of the Quebec Bridge in 1907, the bridge’s designer, Theodore Cooper, received word that the suspended span being built out from the bridge’s cantilever was deflecting downward by a fraction of an inch. Before he could telegraph to freeze the project, the whole cantilever arm broke off and plunged, along with seven dozens workers, into the St. Lawrence River. It was the worst bridge construction disaster in history. As a direct result of the inquiry that followed, the engineering “rules of thumb” by which thousands of bridges had been built went down with the Quebec Bridge. Twentieth-century bridge engineers would thereafter depend on far more rigorous applications of mathematical analysis.
Which one of the following statements can be properly inferred from the passage?
(A) Bridges built before about 1907 were built without thorough mathematical analysis and, therefore, were unsafe for the public to use.
(B) Cooper’s absence from the Quebec Bridge construction site resulted in the breaking off of the cantilever.
(C) Nineteenth-century bridge engineers relied on their rules of thumb because analytical methods were inadequate to solve their design problems.
(D) Only a more rigorous application of mathematical analysis to the design of the Quebec Bridge could have prevented its collapse（E）.
(E) Prior to 1907 the mathematical analysis incorporated in engineering rules of thumb was insufficient to completely assure the safety of bridges under construction.
22. Most children find it very difficult to explain exactly what the words they use mean when those words do not refer to things that can be seen or touched. Yet since children are able to use these words to convey the feelings and emotions they are obviously experiencing, understanding what a word means clearly does not depend on being able to explain it.
Which one of the following principles, if accepted, would provide the most justification for the conclusion?
(A) The fact that a task is very difficult for most people does not mean that no one can do it.
(B) Anyone who can provide an exact explanation of a word has a clear understanding of what that word means.
(C) Words that refer to emotions invariably have less narrowly circumscribed conventional meanings than do word that refer to physical objects.
(D) When someone appropriately uses a word to convey something that he or she is experiencing, that person understands what that word mean.（D）
(E) Words can be explained satisfactorily only when they refer to things that can be seen or touched.
Questions 23- 24
The brains of identical twins are genetically identical. When only one of a pair of identical twins is a schizophrenic, certain areas of the affected twin’s brain are smaller than corresponding areas in the brain of the unaffected twin. No such differences are found when neither twin is schizophrenic. Therefore, this discovery provides definitive evidence that schizophrenia is caused by damage to the physical structure of the brain.
23. Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument?
(A) The brain of person suffering from schizophrenia is smaller than the brain of anyone not suffering from schizophrenia.
(B) The relative smallness of certain parts of the brains of schizophrenics is not the result of schizophrenia or of medications used in its treatment.
(C) The brain of a person with an identical twines is no smaller, on average, than the brain of person who is not a twin.
(D) When a pair of identical twins both suffer from schizophrenia, their brains are the same size.（B）
(E) People who have an identical twin are no more likely to suffer from schizophrenia than those who do not.
24. If the statements on which the conclusion above is based are all true, each of the following could be true EXCEPT:
(A) People who lack a genetic susceptibility for the disease will not develop schizophrenia.
(B) Medications can control most of the symptoms of schizophrenia in most patients but will never be able to cure it.
(C) The brains of schizophrenics share many of the characteristics found in those of people without the disorder.
(D) It will eventually be possible to determine whether or not someone will develop schizophrenia on the basis of genetic information alone.（D）
(E) Brain abnormalities associated with schizophrenia are the result of childhood viral infections that inhibit the development of brain cells.
25. Sixty adults were asked to keep a diary of their meals, including what they consumed, when, and in the company of how many people. It was found that at meals with which they drank alcoholic beverages, they consumed about 175 calories more from nonalcoholic source than they did at meals with which they did not drink alcoholic beverages.
Each of the following, if true, contributes to an explanation of the difference in caloric intake EXCEPT:
(A) Diners spent a much longer time at meals served with alcohol than they did at those serve without alcohol.
(B) The meals eaten later in the day tended to be larger than those eaten earlier in the day, and later meals were more likely to include alcohol.
(C) People eat more when there are more people present at the meal, and more people tended to be present at meal served with alcohol than at meals served without alcohol.
(D) The meals that were most carefully prepared and most attractively served tended to be those at which alcoholic beverages were consumed.（E）
(E) At meals that included alcohol, relatively more of the total calories consumed came from carbohydrates and relatively fewer of them came from fats and proteins.